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[–] ding0bait 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago (edited ago)
And while the bible doesn't make comment on Mary or Joesph's citizenship status, but we do know they were not slaves. As non-slaves they were freemen. Either could have inherited citizenship from a parent.
What's more, the fact the jews did not kill Jesus, and Jesus was tried before Pilate, suggests Jesus held Roman citizenship. Otherwise the account of Jesus before the Sanhedrin makes no sense. Given the earliest gospels were for jews to jews, it would make good to downplay the jewish role in the death of Jesus.
But, in the end, Egypt was like moving to another State, or Province. Still part of Rome.
[–] [deleted] ago
[–] ding0bait ago (edited ago)
source https://ehrmanblog.org/why-romans-crucified-people/
Bart Ehrman
So let's recap the last few days before Jesus was killed:
Clearly Jesus was executed for political reasons. Any citizen Rome, especially a "JEW" who rejected, or plotted against Rome, would die in this way. There could be no other way. Rome had to make a statement. They had to let the Jewish population understand there was only Rome.
[–] ding0bait ago
If he was convicted of theft? Absolutely.
He was convicted of sedition...