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[–] JLeviathanH 0 points 1 point (+1|-0) ago 

That's amazing! If his playing partner's ball would have been hit in would it count as a hole-in-one? I'm assuming it still would.

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[–] bongler8 0 points 1 point (+1|-0) ago 

i might be wrong, but i think both balls would be marked a hole in one since they were only hit by a club one time each.