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[–] Germ22 0 points 3 points 3 points (+3|-0) ago
what would the legality of this be if it were to happen in a civilized country? would the woman be entitled to all of the winnings? half? just the amount that was taken from her?
[–] Guy_Justsome 0 points 15 points 15 points (+15|-0) ago
I'd say she's entitled to all of the winnings, because (1) she would have been SOL if he had lost the bet - all or nothing baby, and (2) the thief is entitled to none of what he stole - law cannot reward crime.
[–] prairie 0 points 7 points 7 points (+7|-0) ago
She would also be entitled to damages on top of that, otherwise people could steal with no downside risk: either they get away with it or they just have to give it back.
[–] Dambuster 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
And.... he has to give her oral.
[–] european ago
Half would be plenty
[–] WeekendBaker 0 points 2 points 2 points (+2|-0) ago
Stolen goods means the purchase was illegal and invalid
[–] Theyeatingtheirshit 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
In a civilized country? She should get back her $10,000 plus interest that would be earned by however it was being used at the time. In a bank? She gets $10,000.45. In her mattress? She gets $9,999.12 for inflation and the money that would have been chewed by rats.
In the US, though, she may get $10,000, and the local agencies (PD, DA, etc.) seize the $100,000,000 he won and split it between them.