Posted by: trainedharpooner
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[–] Delusion_of_Adequacy 1 point -1 points 0 points (+0|-1) ago (edited ago)
That simply not true. For starters, there's a difference in infection rate between vaginal and anal intercourse. Anal is not limited to strictly gays only. In addition, in heterosexual unprotected intercourse, the woman has a higher chance of being infected than the man, so the 1 in 500 would not apply to both genders. Therefore, your comment is incomplete at best. The same applies to anal intercourse by the way; the 'receiving' party has a higher chance of infection than the penetrating party.
Furthermore, there's a difference between sex with someone who's only been recently infected, as opposed to somebody who has advanced to a late stage. Then there are huge differences between high-income and low-income areas. Although gays do have a higher risk of infection, so do drug addicts (if they use needles). Calling AIDS a gay disease is just not factually correct.
Edit: source http://www.aidsmap.com/Estimated-risk-per-exposure/page/1324038/