Posted by: trainedharpooner
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Archived on: 2/12/2017 1:51:00 AM
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[–] Harry_Areola 0 points 2 points 2 points (+2|-0) ago (edited ago)
WTF? The overwhelming majority of HIV cases worldwide are in the hetero population. By a vast margin, most cases are in Sub-Saharan Africa. The only reason it was a "gay disease" in the US is it happened to come into this country in a gay man first.
[–] CatNamedJava 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
It's a "gay" disease because male on Male transition accounts for 63% of new cases in the US. Though it could be considered a "black" disease as blacks make up 21% of Americans but 41% of new cases. It really should be considered a African disease at this point. Since 5% of adults between 15-49 have HIV in sub-Saharan Africa and 72% of all new infections worldwide..
[–] Harry_Areola 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago (edited ago)
"It's a "gay" disease because male on Male transition accounts for 63% of new cases in the US"
You're neglecting the history of what happened. It was a "gay disease" from day one. Because it was brought into the country by a gay man and the government really didn't give a fuck about it until it jumped into the hetero population.