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[–] 1Iron_Curtain 1 point -1 points (+0|-1) ago 

Look at the Slavs they killed(who were not collaborates with the Communists and did not believe in such ideology). They killed members of their own people(when the white race is taken into account), because they were of a non-Germanic racial type.

Sure, they did kill Communists(most of their victims at first were the disabled, political prisoners, and Russian Soviet POWs and Commissars), but let us be honest when we say that they killed innocent Slavs who were basically minding their own business and going about their daily labors. They killed them because they were Slavic or Polish.

The Jews committed a number of atrocities in Germany before WWII and had been trying to pervert and degenerate Germany society and build up its economy to such an extent where they could harbor all kinds of degeneracies. Why else do you think they killed a couple million Slavs and of course killing the Jews had to do with their racial type? Why else would they have killed them? Perhaps, the Jews because they were Communists generally or crony capitalist, but what about the Slavs?

The Slavs did not commit any noticeable crimes and some of the ones brought against them were possibly worked up(like the Bamberg massacre), and the Slavs would have been relatively open and receptive to Germans entrenching their power in Eastern Europe, had they won WWI.

The Nazis were insane and barbaric is the least we need to say, but I agree they were on the right trek until Kristallnacht.

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[–] TheEmpress [S] ago 

You can start by proving Nazis killed millions of Eastern Europeans because they weren't of a given "racial type."

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[–] 1Iron_Curtain ago 

Okay, well let us do that and see what we can find on that given manner. They did align themselves with many Eastern Europeans, such as those in the Baltic states and in the Ukraine, and mostly, in the case of Russia, went after Russians when they were involved with Communists or for being associated with a nation that was Communist.

That said, what does one say for Poles who were expelled from their homes and made to move elsewhere, put into labor camps, or thrown into concentration camps. I don't know how genetically different Poles are from Germans, and I'd believe there is quite a distance in a certain manner, even though they live nearby, but Poles are still part of the European population and Germanicization programs were set up where the Poles were sent to concentration camps while a Germanic family replaced them. This was built on the idea the Germans were the real Aryans from the East and that they needed to resettle the ancient lands of the Goths/Ostrogoths along with all lands that were entitled to real Aryans.

This led to monstrous violations of human rights occurring in the General Government, where Polish people sent to concentration camps from there were considered political prisoners because they had dwelt in territory that had originally been in the possession of the Russians.

This did not make them Communists or affiliate them with the Russians in any direct sense, but they were considered political prisoners because the Nazis considered this Russian land, which had quite a number of Jews in them, especially in the urban land, to be prime land for Germanicization.

They then classified Poles from the General Government as political prisoners to avoid the terrible reality they were classifying another European group as racially unfit, because there was no reason to consider them political prisoners otherwise.