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[–] Quaestorr 0 points 3 points 3 points (+3|-0) ago (edited ago)
I presume that Argentina and Chile are more Spanish than Mexico, because I presume the population is more European, less mestizo than Mexico's.
But I know very little about this.
Btw didn't we have a sort of convo like this here before? Iirc you told me that 'white' in the Latin-American context could indicate some Indian blood on the maternal side of the family, and the first wave of settlers (in SSA) being male (European) Spaniards, many of who had an Indian wife. And iirc Osweo then joined in to elaborate on, cq. correct some more of my assumptions...
[–] Joe_McCarthy [S] 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago (edited ago)
Latin American whiteness standards are pretty shoddy if that is what you mean. If we were to look at this question solely in terms of race Latin America might score below a 5. But there is the issue of cultural dominance. The Spanish imposed their language, religion, customs, and to some extent genetics on mostly Indians. Also their political and social structure. Though of course the influence of blacks and Indians remain.