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[–] zum 0 points 1 point (+1|-0) ago  (edited ago)

WRONG!!!!!

Prior to 1792, For example in 1776 and later, in many states such as New Jersey, free BLACKS COULD VOTE and do so statewide.

this statement is a jew lie and false false...

And also be white

You are thinking of 1792 and later. Prior to 1792 Blacks could vote if not debtors in many states. In fact its protected in original New Jersey constitution.

Blacks even used such laws to fight for (and win) the right to own nigger slaves. Thousands of blacks owned nigger slaves before 1776 and after.