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[–]zum0 points
1 point
1 point
(+1|-0)
ago
(edited ago)
WRONG!!!!!
Prior to 1792, For example in 1776 and later, in many states such as New Jersey, free BLACKS COULD VOTE and do so statewide.
this statement is a jew lie and false false...
And also be white
You are thinking of 1792 and later. Prior to 1792 Blacks could vote if not debtors in many states. In fact its protected in original New Jersey constitution.
Blacks even used such laws to fight for (and win) the right to own nigger slaves. Thousands of blacks owned nigger slaves before 1776 and after.
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[–] Inquisitioner 0 points 2 points 2 points (+2|-0) ago
And also be white. An American had to be a free white person of good character according to our first naturalization act in 1790. Amerindians only got citizenship in 1924 for comparison.
[–] zum 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago (edited ago)
WRONG!!!!!
Prior to 1792, For example in 1776 and later, in many states such as New Jersey, free BLACKS COULD VOTE and do so statewide.
this statement is a jew lie and false false...
You are thinking of 1792 and later. Prior to 1792 Blacks could vote if not debtors in many states. In fact its protected in original New Jersey constitution.
Blacks even used such laws to fight for (and win) the right to own nigger slaves. Thousands of blacks owned nigger slaves before 1776 and after.