[–] clamhurt_legbeard 0 points 6 points 6 points (+6|-0) ago
Used to be only landholders could vote.
Why did that change?
[–] MemeDropAcct [S] 0 points 6 points 6 points (+6|-0) ago (edited ago)
Fairly good take on this here:
https://politicalpistachio.blogspot.com/2012/04/at-founding-of-america-only-property.html
He does not however, touch on pressure from urban representatives (low IQ and low information renters easily influenced by Media) and (((The Usual Suspects)))
[–] clamhurt_legbeard 0 points 5 points 5 points (+5|-0) ago
"You need only reflect that one of the best ways to get yourself a reputation as a dangerous citizen these days is to go about repeating the very phrases which our founding fathers used in the great struggle for independence." - Charles Austin Beard (1874-1948)
Fuck.
[–] clamhurt_legbeard 0 points 9 points 9 points (+9|-0) ago
The practice of buying votes through entitlements was something the Founding Fathers did not desire to exist in the American System, therefore unless you were directly influenced by a majority of the policies by the politicians because of your ownership status in society, it was better for society that you did not vote.
Too real.
[–] Grask1901 ago
Do we even have to wonder anymore goy?