So id presume cops covering up crime breaks a bunch of other laws that they can be fucked in the arse with at any time, and i understand that shitty short as it is theres a limitation on "murder" specifically (which would to me imply any murder by any person against any other person) so...
If those cops are the ones that effectively didnt report the crime by hiding the evidence of it... and they can get done for that presumably even now, why wouldnt the statute be overriden by the fact that evidence of same cops committing that murder has come up "as part of an investigation" into those cops covering up that crime?
Wow... what a trip! Acid may have altered his perception of feeling... he might have liked it...
“ Let do the time warp again... again... again..arrrgh... slump”
[–] Reverse-Flash 0 points 4 points 4 points (+4|-0) ago
Since when is there a statute of limitations on murder?
[–] thelma 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
SInce when do statutes of limitations preclude conviction ?
[–] i_scream_trucks 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
So id presume cops covering up crime breaks a bunch of other laws that they can be fucked in the arse with at any time, and i understand that shitty short as it is theres a limitation on "murder" specifically (which would to me imply any murder by any person against any other person) so...
If those cops are the ones that effectively didnt report the crime by hiding the evidence of it... and they can get done for that presumably even now, why wouldnt the statute be overriden by the fact that evidence of same cops committing that murder has come up "as part of an investigation" into those cops covering up that crime?