[–] ObscureReference 1 point 1 point 2 points (+2|-1) ago (edited ago)
Complex question out of a silly post. The middle ages ended for western culture at about 1500. Wouldn't it be better to say 500 years if I am making the assumption that 'silly' religious rules were no longer governing daily life.
[–] Psylent 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
It wasn't that long ago gay marriage was illegal... wasn't that a religious based law ? . There are actually many other laws still in place only because of christian lobbies. Sharia might not be in place but the christian base of the legal system is still there.
[–] ObscureReference 0 points 1 point 1 point (+1|-0) ago
Good point. We can't completely dissolve our history, like some blue laws on Sunday for buying beer in some states. I am talking about directly applying religious laws cut and paste from the bible applied to daily life regardless of if you want to follow them. Sodomy laws exist in western culture because the bible made that much of an impact. Around early 1500's, there were splits in the Catholic church and no longer was it assumed someone was always Catholic. Clearly there were penalties for not being Catholic in some cases depending on who was calling the shots and the mood of that country at that time, but the cracks in the granite foundation of religious law is the same as civil law, were made.
I guess I am talking about direct translations, the bible says this so it is law. Even if it can be related to questionable bullshit like 'Women must wear a Burka or can't drive because....' the Koran says so? Maybe I have that wrong.
[–] redfascists1 0 points 2 points 2 points (+2|-0) ago
I think the entire civilized world that borders any country with any muslim population should have these
And I'm not joking
[–] Cdub100 ago
At least for a few more months